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Proof.
For all m ≫ 1 m\gg 1 set φ m := 1 m log | 𝔞 m | = 1 m φ F m \varphi_{m}:=\tfrac{1}{m}\log|\mathfrak{a}_{m}|=\tfrac{1}{m}\varphi_{F_{m}} .
This is a θ \theta -psh model function, and [BFJ11 , Theorem 8.5] states that φ m → P θ ( 0 ) \varphi_{m}\to P_{\theta}(0) uniformly on X X . Unravelling the definitions, we find
− ( 1 m ℳ m ) n ⋅ ( 1 m F m ) = ∫ φ m ( θ + d d c φ m ) n . -\left(\tfrac{1}{m}\mathcal{M}_{m}\right)^{n}\cdot\left(\tfrac{1}{m}F_{m}\right)=\int\varphi_{m}\,(\theta+dd^{c}\varphi_{m})^{n}.
By Theorem 3.1 the right-hand side converges to ∫ P θ ( 0 ) ( θ + d d c P θ ( 0 ) ) n \int P_{\theta}(0)\left(\theta+dd^{c}P_{\theta}(0)\right)^{n} , which proves the result.
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